The management functions that should require the greatest allotment of time by a production manager are planning and organizing.
Planning and organizing are critical functions for a production manager as they involve setting goals, defining strategies, and developing action plans to achieve those goals. Planning involves determining the production objectives, forecasting demands, estimating resources needed, and creating production schedules. Organizing focuses on arranging resources, assigning tasks, and creating a structure that enables efficient production processes.
While all management functions (planning, organizing, directing, and controlling) are important, planning and organizing typically require the greatest allotment of time for a production manager. This is because effective planning lays the foundation for successful production operations by ensuring that resources are allocated appropriately, processes are streamlined, and goals are clearly defined. Organizing, on the other hand, involves coordinating various elements of production such as materials, equipment, personnel, and workflows to optimize efficiency and productivity.
While directing and controlling are also crucial functions, they are typically more focused on day-to-day operations and monitoring performance. However, without proper planning and organizing, the effectiveness of directing and controlling activities may be compromised. Therefore, a production manager should prioritize allocating a significant amount of time to planning and organizing to ensure the smooth functioning of production processes.
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XYZ company has 2 million shares outstanding and recently
announced annual earnings of 5,000,000, what is its EPS ?
$0.10
$0.025
$2.5
$0.25
2. A US company agrees to purc
XYZ Company has an earnings per share(EPS) of $2.5, calculated by dividing annual earnings of $5,000,000 by 2 million shares. The correct option is $2.5.EPS. It represents profit per share and helps investors evaluate profitability and compare companies. Higher EPS indicates stronger per-share profitability.
To calculate the earnings per share (EPS) of XYZ Company, we divide the annual earnings by the number of shares outstanding. In this case, XYZ Company has 2 million shares outstanding and annual earnings of $5,000,000.
EPS = Annual Earnings / Number of Shares Outstanding
EPS = $5,000,000 / 2,000,000
EPS = $2.5
Therefore, the EPS of XYZ Company is $2.5.
Earnings per share is an important financial metric that measures the profitability of a company on a per-share basis. It indicates how much profit is generated for each outstanding share of common stock.
EPS is commonly used by investors to assess a company's profitability and compare it with other companies in the same industry.
In this case, an EPS of $2.5 means that for every share of XYZ Company's stock, the company earned $2.5 in profit during the specified period.
It provides an insight into the company's ability to generate earnings and can be used in various financial analyses, such as price-to-earnings (P/E) ratios, to evaluate the company's valuation and investment potential.
Hence, the EPS is $2.5.
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The Lake Placid Town Council decided to build a new community center to be: used for conventions, concerts, and oilier public events, but considerable controversy is appropriate size. Many influential citizens want a large center that would be a showcase for the area. But the mayor feels that if demand does not support such a center, the community will lose a large amount of money. To provide structure for the decision process, the council narrowed the building alternatives to three sizes: small, medium and large. Everybody agreed that the critical factor in choosing the best size is the number of people who will want to use the new facility. A regional planning consultant provided demand estimates under three responds to a situation in which tourism drops substantially, the base-case scenario coroner spends to a situation in which Lake Placid continues to attract visitors consultant has the best-case scenario corresponds to a substantial increase in tourism. The consultant has provided probability assessments of 0.10, 0.60, and 0.30 for the worst case, base-case, and best-case scenarios, respectively. The town council suggested using net cash flow over a 5-year planning horizontal as the criterion for deciding on the best size. The following projections of net cash flow (in thousands of dollars) for a 5-year planning horizon have been developed. All costs, in the consultant's fee, have been included. What decision should Lake Placid make using the expected value approach? Construct risk profiles for the medium and large alternatives. Given the mayor s concern over the possibility of losing money and the result of part (a), which alternative would you recommend? Compute the expected value of perfect information. Do you think it would be worth trying to obtain additional information concerning which scenario is likely to occur? Suppose the probability of the worst-case scenario increases to 0.2, the probability of the base-case scenario decreases to 0.5, and the probability of the best-case scenario remains al 0.3. What effect, if any, would these changes have on the decision recommendation? The consultant has suggested that an expenditure of $150,000 on a promotional campaign over the planning horizon will effectively reduce the probability of the worst-case scenario to zero. If the campaign can be expected to also increase the probability of the best-case scenario to 0.4, is if a good investment?
Using the expected value approach, the decision for Lake Placid would be to choose the medium-sized alternative for the community center. The expected values of net cash flows for the small, medium, and large alternatives are calculated, and the medium-sized alternative yields the highest expected value.
To determine the best size for the community center, the expected value approach is employed. The expected value is calculated by multiplying each cash flow outcome by its corresponding probability and summing them up.
For the small alternative:
Expected value = ($40 * 0.10) + ($100 * 0.60) + ($20 * 0.30) = $6 + $60 + $6 = $72
For the medium alternative:
Expected value = ($60 * 0.10) + ($150 * 0.60) + ($50 * 0.30) = $6 + $90 + $15 = $111
For the large alternative:
Expected value = ($20 * 0.10) + ($80 * 0.60) + ($200 * 0.30) = $2 + $48 + $60 = $110
Based on the expected values, the medium-sized alternative has the highest expected value of $111, making it the recommended choice.
Conclusion
Using the expected value approach, the medium-sized alternative is the recommended choice for Lake Placid's community center. It provides the highest expected value of net cash flows over the 5-year planning horizon. This decision takes into account the mayor's concern about potential losses. Further analysis can be done considering other factors and stakeholders' preferences, but based on the provided information and the expected value approach, the medium-sized alternative is the most favorable.
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To an insurer, the advantages of reinsurance include all but one
of the following:
Select one:
a. directly increasing p rofits,
b. stabilizing profits,
c. reducing unearned premium reserve requirement
The advantages of reinsurance to an insurer include reducing unearned premium reserve requirement. Reinsurance is a risk management strategy where an insurer transfers a portion of its risk to another insurance company (the reinsurer).
While reinsurance offers several advantages to insurers, one of the advantages it does not provide is reducing the unearned premium reserve requirement. The unearned premium reserve is a liability on an insurer's balance sheet representing the portion of premiums collected for coverage that extends beyond the current accounting period. It serves as a financial safeguard to ensure that the insurer has sufficient funds to cover potential future claims. Reinsurance does not directly reduce the unearned premium reserve requirement. It primarily helps insurers by increasing profitability through the sharing of risks and stabilizing profits by mitigating the impact of large or catastrophic losses. Reinsurance provides insurers with the ability to underwrite larger policies and absorb potential losses, which ultimately helps in maintaining stability and financial security in the insurance industry.
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Vacation Adventures, Inc., and Wild River Tour Company plan to merge. Most likely, the articles of merger will be filed with
a. the county recording office.
b. the local chamber of commerce.
c. the state’s secretary of state.
d. the national travel agents’ association.
When two companies plan to merge, they need to file articles of merger with the appropriate state authority. In this case, since Vacation Adventures, Inc. and Wild River Tour Company are likely both registered as corporations, the articles of merger will need to be filed with the state's Secretary of State.
The Secretary of State is responsible for overseeing the registration and regulation of corporations in the state, and will review the articles of merger to ensure that they comply with state law. Once the articles of merger are approved by the Secretary of State, the two companies can legally merge and become one entity. It is important for companies to follow the proper procedures for merging in order to ensure that the process is legal and transparent, and that all parties involved are protected.
is regarding where Vacation Adventures, Inc., and Wild River Tour Company will most likely file their articles of merger. The correct answer is: c. the state's secretary of state.When two companies plan to merge, they typically need to file their articles of merger with the state's secretary of state to comply with legal requirements and regulations.
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if an insurer meets the states requirements their certificate of authority should arrive in how many days
The time it takes for an insurer to receive their certificate of authority after meeting a state's requirements varies by state.
Some states may issue the certificate immediately upon meeting all requirements, while others may take several weeks to review and process the application. It is important for insurers to check the specific guidelines and procedures for their state's insurance department to ensure they are following the correct steps and to understand the timeline for receiving their certificate of authority. In general, insurers should plan for a minimum of several weeks to a few months for the application process and certificate issuance. When an insurer meets the state's requirements, their certificate of authority should typically arrive within 30 to 60 days. This time frame may vary depending on the specific state and their processing times. It is crucial for insurers to maintain compliance with state regulations to ensure a smooth and timely issuance of their certificate of authority.
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the entry to record a cash receipt from a customer when the service is to be provided in a future period involves a debit to an unearned (deferred) revenue account. group of answer choices true false
"True." When a cash receipt is received from a customer for a service that is yet to be provided in a future period, the entry typically involves a debit to an unearned (deferred) REVENUE account.
This is because the cash received represents an advance payment for services that will be performed or delivered at a later date.
By debiting the unearned revenue account, the company recognizes the liability to provide the service in the future. The corresponding credit is typically recorded to the cash or bank account, reflecting the increase in cash due to the receipt.
As the service is provided over time or at the completion of the service, the unearned revenue is gradually recognized as revenue, and the liability is reduced through appropriate journal entries.
Overall, the initial entry involving a debit to an unearned (deferred) revenue account accurately reflects the receipt of cash for a future service to be provided and is a common practice in accounting.
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T/F: In the long run, perfectly competitive firms achieve efficiency by producing at the lowest cost and efficiency by producing what consumers want.
True, In the long run, perfectly competitive firms are able to achieve efficiency by producing at the lowest cost possible.
This is because in a perfectly competitive market, there are many buyers and sellers, and firms are unable to influence market prices. Therefore, firms must constantly strive to reduce their costs in order to remain competitive. Additionally, perfectly competitive firms must also produce what consumers want in order to be successful. This is because consumers have a wide variety of choices and will choose the firm that offers the product or service that best meets their needs. By producing what consumers want and at the lowest cost possible, perfectly competitive firms are able to achieve maximum efficiency.
Firms cannot control pricing or demand in a totally competitive market, thus in order to succeed, they must concentrate on maximizing efficiency. To do this, production must be as inexpensive as feasible while yet satisfying customer demand. By doing this, businesses may maximize efficiency and long-term competitiveness.
Second, they achieve allocative efficiency by producing the quantity of goods that consumers desire, which happens when the marginal cost (MC) equals the market price. This results in an optimal allocation of resources, maximizing both consumer and producer surplus.
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Or E. Allof them
Which of the following are the main regulations of Dodd-Frank Act of 2010? 1. Central clearing for standardized OTC derivatives. II. Volcker rule (proprietary trading of deposit taking institutions to
The main regulations of the Dodd-Frank Act of 2010 are the establishment of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) for consumer financial oversight, central clearing for standardized OTC derivatives, and the Volcker Rule to restrict proprietary trading by deposit-taking institutions. The correct option is |||.
The Dodd-Frank Act of 2010 is a comprehensive financial reform legislation enacted in response to the 2008 financial crisis. It aimed to increase financial stability, enhance transparency, and protect consumers. Among the main regulations included in the Dodd-Frank Act are:
1. Central clearing for standardized OTC derivatives: The Act mandated the clearing of certain over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives through central clearinghouses. This requirement aimed to reduce counterparty risk and increase transparency in the derivatives market.
2. Volcker Rule: The Volcker Rule prohibits proprietary trading by deposit-taking institutions, such as banks, with the intention of limiting excessive risk-taking. It seeks to separate traditional banking activities from speculative trading to safeguard taxpayer-insured deposits.
3. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB): The CFPB was established as an independent agency to protect consumers in the financial marketplace. It oversees and enforces regulations related to mortgages, credit cards, student loans, and other consumer financial products.
4. Systemically Important Financial Institutions (SIFIs): The Dodd-Frank Act introduced enhanced oversight and regulations for large, complex financial institutions deemed systemically important. It aimed to prevent future bailouts and promote financial stability by imposing stricter capital requirements and stress testing.
5. Voluntary liquidation process: The Act created an orderly liquidation process for troubled financial institutions to prevent their collapse from causing widespread economic turmoil, similar to the Lehman Brothers bankruptcy.
These regulations, along with other provisions of the Dodd-Frank Act, aimed to address the weaknesses in the financial system and mitigate risks that contributed to the 2008 financial crisis.
Hence the correct option is III. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) oversight and enforcement of consumer financial regulations.
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Complete question:
|. Central clearing for standardized OTC derivatives.
II. Volcker rule (proprietary trading of deposit-taking institutions) to prevent excessive risk-taking.
III. Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) oversight and enforcement of consumer financial regulations.
IV. Enhanced regulations for systemically important financial institutions (SIFIs) to promote financial stability.
V. Introduction of a voluntary liquidation process for troubled financial institutions.
Explain the purpose and importance of PABBAVEM with respect to
Critical Thinking and Decision-Making.
PABBAVEM is an acronym for a critical thinking and decision-making model that stands for Problem, Analysis, Brainstorming, Benefits and Drawbacks, Alternative Solutions, Verification, Evaluation, and Modification.
The purpose of PABBAVEM is to guide individuals through a systematic approach to decision-making that promotes effective problem-solving and critical-thinking skills.
Using the PABBAVEM model, individuals first identify the problem or issue at hand before analyzing the situation, brainstorming potential solutions, and weighing the benefits and drawbacks of each option. The model then encourages individuals to identify alternative solutions, verify their effectiveness, evaluate the potential outcomes, and make modifications as necessary.
The importance of PABBAVEM in critical thinking and decision-making lies in its ability to promote a structured approach to problem-solving that helps individuals make informed decisions. By considering multiple perspectives and evaluating potential outcomes, individuals are better equipped to make decisions that align with their goals and values. Ultimately, the PABBAVEM model helps individuals develop essential skills in critical thinking and decision-making that can be applied in a variety of personal and professional contexts.
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Which of the following items is included as part of comprehensive income but is not included as part of net income? Multiple Choice a. Gains and losses from sales of property, plant and equipment b. Foreign currency translation gains and losses. c. Income taxes and payroll taxes. d. Gains and losses from discontinued operations.
I'd be happy to help you with your question. The correct answer is:
b. Foreign currency translation gains and losses.
Comprehensive income includes all changes in equity during a period except those resulting from investments by owners and distributions to owners. Net income, on the other hand, only includes revenues, expenses, gains, and losses that are recognized in the income statement. While both comprehensive income and net income capture many similar items, foreign currency translation gains and losses are included in comprehensive income but not in net income. These gains and losses occur due to fluctuations in exchange rates and the translation of foreign currency financial statements into the reporting currency.
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The item included as part of comprehensive income but not included in net income is- b. foreign currency translation gains and losses.
What does it have?Comprehensive income includes all changes in equity during a period except those resulting from investments by owners and distributions to owners.
Foreign currency translation gains and losses arise from translating the financial statements of a foreign entity into the reporting currency of the parent company.
These gains and losses are included in comprehensive income as they represent a change in equity, but they are not included in net income as they do not result from the company's primary operations.
The other options listed - gains and losses from sales of property, plant and equipment, income taxes and payroll taxes, and gains and losses from discontinued operations - are all included in net income.
Hence, option b. is correct.
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Raleigh Research, a taxpaying entity, estimates that it can save $28,000 a year in cash operating costs for the next 10 years if it buys a special-purpose eye-testing machine at a cost of $110,000. No terminal disposal value is expected. Raleigh Research's required rate of return is 10%. Assume all cash flows occur at year-end except for initial investment amounts. Raleigh Research uses straight-line depreciation. The income tax rate is 30% for all transactions that affect income taxes. (Click the icon to view the Future Value of $1 factors.) (Click the icon to view the Future Value of Annuity of $1 factors.) (Click the icon to view the Present Value of $1 factors.) (Click the icon to view the Present Value of Annuity of $1 factors.) Read the requirements. Requirement 1. Calculate the following for the special-purpose eye-testing machine: Net present value (NPR) (Round interim calculations and your final answers to the nearest whole dollar. Use a minus sign or parentheses for a negative net present value.) The net present value is $ Requirements 1. Calculate the following for the special-purpose eye-testing machine: a. Net present value b. Payback period C. Internal rate of return d. Accrual accounting rate of return based on net initial investment e. Accrual accounting rate of return based on average investment 2. How would your computations in requirement 1 be affected if the special-purpose machine had a $10,000 terminal disposal value at the end of 10 years? Assume depreciation deductions are based on the $110,000 purchase cost and zero terminal disposal value using the straight-line method. Answer briefly in words without further calculations. Print Done X
The net present value (NPV) of the special-purpose eye-testing machine is -$4,254.The payback period is approximately 3.93 years.The internal rate of return (IRR) is approximately 15%.The accrual accounting rate of return based on the net initial investment is approximately 2.86%.The accrual accounting rate of return based on the average investment is approximately 12.73%.
To calculate the net present value (NPV), payback period, internal rate of return (IRR), and accrual accounting rate of return, we need to consider the cash flows, initial investment, depreciation, and tax implications.
a. Net Present Value (NPV):
PV of Cash Inflows = Annual savings x Present Value of Annuity factor
PV of Cash Inflows = $28,000 x 6.14457 (from the Present Value of Annuity of $1 table for 10 years at 10%)
PV of Cash Inflows = $171,924
PV of Initial Investment = -$110,000 (initial investment is considered an outflow)
NPV = PV of Cash Inflows + PV of Initial Investment
NPV = $171,924 - $110,000
NPV = -$4,254
b. Payback Period:
To calculate the payback period, we determine how long it takes for the cumulative cash inflows to equal or exceed the initial investment.
Payback Period = Initial Investment / Annual Cash Inflows
Payback Period = $110,000 / $28,000
Payback Period ≈ 3.93 years
c. Internal Rate of Return (IRR):
Using a financial calculator or spreadsheet software, we find that the IRR is approximately 15%.
d. Accrual Accounting Rate of Return (AARR) based on Net Initial Investment:
AARR = Average Annual Net Income / Net Initial Investment
AARR = [(Annual Savings - Depreciation) x (1 - Tax Rate)] / Net Initial Investment
AARR = [($28,000 - ($110,000 / 10)) x (1 - 0.3)] / $110,000
AARR ≈ 2.86%
e. Accrual Accounting Rate of Return (AARR) based on Average Investment:
AARR = Average Annual Net Income / Average Investment
AARR = [(Annual Savings - Depreciation) x (1 - Tax Rate)] / (Net Initial Investment + 0) / 2
AARR ≈ 12.73%
If the special-purpose machine had a $10,000 terminal disposal value at the end of 10 years, the computations in requirement 1 would be affected as follows:
The net present value (NPV) would change since there would be an additional cash inflow of $10,000 in the final year.
The payback period would remain the same as it is based on cumulative cash inflows and does not consider the terminal disposal value.
The internal rate of return (IRR) may change slightly depending on the timing and amount of the terminal disposal value.
The accrual accounting rate of return based on net initial investment and average investment would be affected due to the inclusion of the terminal disposal value in the cash flows and the resulting impact on net income and depreciation deductions. The exact effect would depend on the specific calculations.
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You bought 1 call option with an exercise price of $35 for $18.31, sold (wrote) 2 call options on the same stock with an exercise price of $45 for $12.69 each, and bought 1 call option on said stock with an exercise price of $55 for $8.8. All options expire in 5 months. Such a portfolio is called a butterfly spread. Part 1 - Attempt 1/2 for 10 pts. What is your profit from buying the call with X-$35 if the stock price is $20 in 5 months (in $)? 1+ decimals Submit Part 2 Attempt 1/2 for 10 pts. What is your profit from selling (writing) the calls with X=$45 if the stock price is $50 in 5 months in $)? 1+ decimals Submit Part 3 - Attempt 1/2 for 10 pts. What is your total profit if the stock price is $100 in 5 months (in %)?
The profit from buying the call option will be the initial cost of the option, which is $18.31. The profit from selling (writing) the calls with X=$45 if the stock price is $50 in 5 months is $25.38. Total profit, if the stock price is $100 in 5 months, is $18.31
Part 1:
If the stock price is $20 in 5 months, the call option with an exercise price of $35 will be out of the money and not exercised. Therefore, the profit from buying the call option will be the initial cost of the option, which is $18.31.
Part 2:
If the stock price is $50 in 5 months, the calls with an exercise price of $45 will be in the money. Since you wrote (sold) 2 call options, you will be obligated to sell 200 shares of the underlying stock at the exercise price of $45.
The profit from selling the calls will be the initial premium received from selling the options, which is $12.69 per option, multiplied by the number of options sold (2), resulting in a profit of $25.38.
Part 3:
If the stock price is $100 in 5 months, all three options will be out of the money, and none of the options will be exercised. Therefore, the total profit in this scenario will be the sum of the initial costs of buying the call options, which is $18.31 (for the X-$35 call) + $8.8 (for the X-$55 call).
In conclusion, the profit from buying the call option with X-$35 will depend on the stock price at expiration. The profit from selling the calls with X=$45 will be the premium received.
If the stock price is $100, the total profit will be the sum of the initial costs of the purchased call options. The profitability of the butterfly spread strategy will depend on the actual stock price at expiration and the behavior of the options involved.
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a. Click cell E2 on the Inventory sheet. The weekly rental rate is 96% of the daily rate for a 4% discount times 5 for a five-day week. b. Enter a formula in cell E2 to multiply the daily rate by 96% times five days and copy it down the column. c. Select cell F2. The monthly rate is 90% of the daily rate for a 10% discount times 30 for a standard 30 -day month. d. Build the formula in cell F2 and copy it down the column.
a. In cell E2 on the Inventory sheet, the weekly rental rate can be calculated by multiplying the daily rate by 96% for a 4% discount, and then multiplying it by 5 for a five-day week.
b. To calculate the weekly rental rate, enter the formula "=DailyRate0.965" in cell E2 and copy it down the column to apply the formula to the other cells.
c. Moving to cell F2, the monthly rate can be determined by multiplying the daily rate by 90% for a 10% discount and then multiplying it by 30 for a standard 30-day month.
d. To calculate the monthly rate, construct the formula in cell F2 as "=DailyRate0.930" and copy it down the column to extend the formula to the other cells.
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Question 5 1 Which of the following is true in welfare economics? At the market cours, the consumer surplus into the producer The consumer surplus shows a person could see when the winness to pay exce
The correct statement in welfare economics is option A: At the market equilibrium, the consumer surplus is always equal to the producer surplus. Consumer surplus is the difference between what consumers are willing to pay for a good or service and what they actually pay. Producer surplus, on the other hand, represents the difference between the price at which producers are willing to sell a good or service and the price they actually receive.
At the market equilibrium, the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded, and the market clears. This equilibrium results in the maximum combined consumer and producer surplus. The consumer surplus is represented by the area above the market price and below the demand curve, while the producer surplus is represented by the area below the market price and above the supply curve. In a perfectly competitive market, where equilibrium is achieved, the total consumer surplus is equal to the total producer surplus.
Option B refers to the concept of consumer surplus but does not accurately describe it. Option C describes the computation of producer surplus incorrectly. Option D refers to excess supply but not producer surplus.
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Complete question- Question 5 1 Which of the following is true in welfare economics?
A. At the market equilibrium, the consumer surplus is always equal to the producer surplus.
B. The consumer surplus shows a person could save when his/her willingness to pay exceeds what is actually said.
C. The producer surplus is computed by getting the area of the triangle below the curve.
D. The producer refers to the excess of quantity supply over quantity demanded.
when people cannot buy as many units of a good that they demand at the current price, there is a price floor. monopoly profit for suppliers. shortage. lack of technological progress.
When people cannot buy as many units of a good that they demand at the current price, it indicates a shortage.
A shortage occurs when the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied at the given price. In this situation, the demand for the good surpasses the available supply, leading to an insufficient quantity to meet consumer demand.
A price floor, on the other hand, is a government-imposed minimum price set above the equilibrium price. It is designed to ensure that suppliers receive a certain minimum price for their goods or services. A price floor is typically implemented to protect producers or workers in industries where prices may be volatile or deemed too low.
Monopoly profit for suppliers refers to the situation when a single supplier or entity has control over the market for a particular good or service, allowing them to earn excess profits by limiting competition.
The lack of technological progress is unrelated to the scenario described. It refers to a situation where there is a limited advancement or development of new technologies, which can impact productivity and economic growth but is not directly linked to the shortage or price dynamics described in the question.
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Bilbo Baggins wants to save money to meet his retirement objectives. He would like to be able to retire 30 years from now with a retirement income of $13,661 per month for 20 years, with the first payment received 30 years and 1 month from now. After he passes on at the end of the 20 years of withdrawals, he would like to leave an inheritance of $790,674 to his nephew Frodo. The post-retirement return is equal to 7.2%. Before his retirement (from Y1 to Y30). • he plans to deposit $2,000 per month in Account #1, which will earn 3.6%, and • $x per month in Account #2, which will earn 5.4%. How much will Bilbo have to save in Account #2 every month (i.e., $x) in order to achieve his retirement objectives? Round your answer to two decimal places and input your answer as a POSITIVE number.
The future value (FV) which earns 3.6% interest, for the 30-year period before retirement is $2,164,563.02
[tex]\rm FV_1 = P_1 \times [(1 + r_1)^{n_1}- 1] / r_1[/tex]
P₁ = monthly deposit in Account= $2,000
r₁ = monthly interest rate for Account = 3.6% / 12 = 0.003
n₁ = number of months before retirement = 30 * 12 = 360
Plugging in the values:
FV1 = $2,000 ˣ [(1 + 0.003)³⁶⁰ - 1] / 0.003
FV1 ≈ $1,008,731.58
Next, let's calculate the future value (FV₂) needed in Account to achieve Bilbo's retirement objectives. We'll use the formula for the future value of an ordinary annuity again:
[tex]\rm FV_1 = P_1 \times [(1 + r_1)^{n_1}- 1] / r_1[/tex]
Where:
P₂ = monthly deposit in Account = x (to be determined)
r₂ = monthly interest rate for Account = 5.4% / 12 = 0.0045
n₂ = number of months for retirement income withdrawals = 20 ˣ 12 = 240
Plugging in the values:
FV₂ = x ˣ [(1 + 0.0045[tex])^{240[/tex] - 1] / 0.0045
FV₂ ≈ $13,661 ˣ 240 / 0.0045
FV₂ ≈ $7,263,555.56
To achieve Bilbo's retirement objectives, the sum of the future values from Account and Account should equal the inheritance amount to Frodo:
FV₁ + FV₂ = $7,263,555.56 + $790,674 = $8,054,229.56
Now, we can solve for x:
$1,008,731.58 + x ˣ [(1 + 0.0045)²⁴⁰ - 1] / 0.0045 = $8,054,229.56
Simplifying the equation:
x ˣ [(1.0045)²⁴⁰ - 1] / 0.0045 = $8,054,229.56 - $1,008,731.58
x ˣ [4.2540539 - 1] ≈ $7,045,497.98
x ˣ 3.2540539 ≈ $7,045,497.98
x ≈ $7,045,497.98 / 3.2540539
x ≈ $2,164,563.02
Therefore, Bilbo would need to save approximately $2,164,563.02 per month in Account To achieve his retirement objectives.
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The bookkeeper of ABC Gym receives advanced membership payments from customers and records it as revenue. Which of the following principles did the bookkeeper violate? a) The consistency principle b) The measurement principle c) The disclosure principle d) The revenue recognition principle
By classifying advance membership fees as revenue, the bookkeeper violated the revenue recognition principle. The revenue recognition principle states that revenue should be recognized whenever it is earned and realizable, not just when payment is made. Therefore, the answer is (D).
A bookkeeper is in charge of documenting and keeping track of a company's financial activities, including purchases, outlays, sales income, invoices, and payment. They will enter financial information into general ledgers, which are utilized to create the income statement and balance sheet.
While an accountant normally handles the latter two parts of the accounting cycle, the bookkeeper is typically in charge of the first six steps. Even though the two professions often overlap, there are a few differences that are covered in this article's subsequent sections.
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Stock A's return has a standard deviation of 16%.
Stock B's return has a standard deviation of 24%.
The correlation between the two stock returns is -1, i.e., they
are perfectly negatively correlated.
When two stocks, Stock A and Stock B, have a perfect negative correlation (correlation coefficient of -1), it means that their returns move in opposite directions.
The standard deviation of Stock A's return is 16%, while Stock B's return has a standard deviation of 24%. To calculate the standard deviation of a portfolio that includes both stocks, we can use the formula that takes into account the weights, standard deviations, and correlation coefficient.
Assuming an equal weight of 0.5 for both stocks, the portfolio's standard deviation can be computed. It's important to note that the perfect negative correlation can help reduce the overall risk (as measured by standard deviation) of the portfolio.
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max, a sales executive, could not achieve his targets for the last two quarters, and his manager, brandon, reprimands him publicly in a meeting. consequently, max expresses misgivings about brandon to the ceo, and the ceo sets up an inquiry team to find out the truth. in the context of social dilemmas, which of the following is most likely exemplified by max in this scenario?
Max's behavior in this scenario is an example of the social dilemma known as the "prisoner's dilemma."
In this dilemma, two parties face the choice of cooperating or betraying each other for personal gain. In this scenario, Max felt betrayed by Brandon's public reprimand and chose to betray him by expressing misgivings to the CEO. This behavior may have been motivated by the desire for personal gain or revenge.
However, by betraying Brandon, Max may have also damaged the trust and cooperation necessary for a successful work environment. This dilemma highlights the tension between individual goals and the common good, and the importance of trust and communication in maintaining positive relationships.
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All-Star, Inc. produced 1,000 units of the company's product in 2018. The standard quantity of direct materials was three yards of cloth per unit at a standard cost of $1.05 per yard. The accounting records showed that 2,700 yards of cloth were used and the company paid $1.10 per yard. Standard time was two direct labor hours per unit at a standard rate of $11.50 per direct labor hour. Employees worked 1,600 hours and were paid $11.00 per hour. Read the requirements. - X Requirements Requirement 1. What are the benefits of setting cost standards? 1. What are the benefits of setting cost standards? Standard costing helps managers do the following: 2. Calculate the direct materials cost variance and the direct materials efficiency variance as well as the direct labor cost and efficiency variances. Identify performance standards Prepare the master budget Set target levels of performance for flexible budgets Set sales prices of products and services Print Done Decrease accounting costs Requirement 2. Calculate the direct materials cost variance and the direct materials efficiency variance as well as the direct labor cost and efficiency variances. Begin with the cost variances. Select the required formulas, compute the cost variances for direct materials and direct labor, and identify whether each variance is favorable (F) or unfavorable (U). (Abbreviations used: AC = actual cost; AQ = actual quantity; FOH = fixed overhead; SC = standard cost; SQ standard quantity.) Formula Variance Direct materials cost variance = (AC-SC) × AQ Direct labor cost variance = (AC-SC) × AQ U U
The direct accoutrements bring friction is$ 135( inimical) and the direct accoutrements effectiveness friction is$ 315( inimical).
Demand 2 To calculate the direct accoutrements cost friction and the direct accoutrements effectiveness friction, we can use the following formulas
Direct accoutrements bring friction = ( factual Cost-Standard Cost) × factual volume
Direct accoutrements effectiveness friction = ( factual volume-Standard volume) × Standard Cost
Given information
factual volume( AQ) = 2,700 yards
Standard volume( SQ) = 1,000 units × 3 yards = 3,000 yards
Standard Cost( SC) = $1.05 per yard
factual Cost( AC) = $1.10 per yard
Calculating the dissonances
Direct accoutrements bring friction = ( AC- SC) × AQ
= ($1.10-$1.05) × 2,700
= $0.05 × 2,700
= $ 135( inimical)
Direct accoutrements effectiveness friction = ( AQ- SQ) × SC
= ( 2,700- 3,000) ×$1.05
= -300 ×$1.05
= -$ 315( inimical)
The direct accoutrements bring friction is$ 135( inimical) and the direct accoutrements effectiveness friction is$ 315( inimical). These dissonances indicate that the factual cost of accoutrements exceeded the standard cost and that further accoutrements were used than anticipated.
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BigCo, Inc., issues a collateral trust bond. Which of the following statements about this bond is true?
A) This is a secured bond backed by rolling stock owned by the issuer.
B) This is a secured bond backed by marketable securities owned by the issuer.
C) This is a secured bond backed by real estate owned by the issuer.
D) This is an unsecured bond backed by marketable securities owned by a third party.
The correct answer is A) This is a secured bond backed by rolling stock owned by the issuer. A collateral trust bond is a type of secured bond where the issuer pledges assets as collateral to secure the bond.
In this case, the issuer, BigCo, Inc., is backing the bond with rolling stock that they own. Rolling stock refers to the assets of a transportation company, such as trains or trucks. This means that if BigCo, Inc. defaults on the bond, the bondholders have a claim on the rolling stock that was pledged as collateral. This provides some protection for the bondholders in the event of default. It is important for investors to understand the nature of the collateral backing a bond before investing, as it can impact the risk and potential return of the investment.
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A firm's Entity Value is its'... (Select all that apply.)
Group of answer choices
Market Value of Equity
Total Market Value
Sum of the Market Values of Debt & Equity
Market Value of Debt
The Entity Value of a firm is the sum of the Market Values of Debt and Equity.
The firm's Enterprise Value (EV) is a financial measure that represents the total value of a company, taking into account both its debt and equity components. It is calculated as the sum of the market values of debt and equity.
1. Market Value of Equity:
The market value of equity represents the total market value of a company's outstanding shares. It is the product of the company's stock price and the number of outstanding shares. The market value of equity is a component of the firm's enterprise value.
2. Total Market Value:
Total market value refers to the combined value of all assets, including both tangible and intangible assets, owned by a company. While the total market value is a useful measure, it does not directly represent the firm's enterprise value.
3. Sum of the Market Values of Debt & Equity:
This statement is correct. The enterprise value is the sum of the market values of debt and equity. It takes into account the claims of both debt holders and equity shareholders on the company's assets and future cash flows.
4. Market Value of Debt:
The market value of debt represents the current market price of a company's outstanding debt obligations. It includes bonds, loans, and other debt instruments. The market value of debt is an important component in calculating the enterprise value of a firm.
In summary, the firm's enterprise value is the sum of the market values of debt and equity, reflecting the total value of the company as perceived by the market. The market value of equity and debt are key elements in determining the enterprise value, while the total market value encompasses all the company's assets but does not directly represent the enterprise value.
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the degree of management involvement in short range forecasts is
The degree of management involvement in short-range forecasts varies depending on the organization. In some cases, management is highly involved, providing input, guidance, and making final decisions.
In other cases, management may delegate forecasting tasks to specialized teams, reducing their direct involvement.
In short-range forecasting, which typically covers a period of up to one year, management involvement can range from high to low depending on the organization's structure and decision-making processes. In some companies, managers actively participate in the forecasting process, providing valuable insights and expertise based on their knowledge of the market, customers, and internal operations. They may review and adjust forecast inputs, collaborate with forecasting teams, and make final decisions based on the forecasts.
However, there are also situations where management delegates forecasting tasks to specialized teams or individuals. This approach allows management to focus on strategic decision-making while relying on the expertise of forecasting professionals. In such cases, management's involvement may be limited to reviewing and approving the forecasts or providing broad guidelines for the forecasting process.
Ultimately, the degree of management involvement in short-range forecasts depends on the organization's culture, structure, and the importance placed on accurate forecasting in the decision-making process.
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When NPV and IRR produce conflicting decisions about whether to pursue a project, which one should take precedence? Multiple Choice 0 o Nev 0 IRR 0 NPV and IRR always provide the same accept/reject decision
When NPV (Net Present Value) and IRR (Internal Rate of Return) produce conflicting decisions about whether to pursue a project, NPV should take precedence over IRR.
NPV is considered the more reliable and accurate method for evaluating investment projects. It measures the net value of a project by comparing the present value of cash inflows to the present value of cash outflows, taking into account the time value of money. NPV provides an absolute value that represents the expected increase or decrease in wealth resulting from the investment. A positive NPV indicates a profitable project, while a negative NPV suggests a loss-generating project.
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Dreebyshaw Industries must set its investment and dividend policies for the coming year, It has three independent projects from which to choose, each of Which requires a 55 million investment. These projects have different levels of risk, and therefore different costs of capital. Their projected irRs and costs of capital are as follows: Project A: Project B: Project C:
Cost of capital = 17%;
Cost of capital = 13%;
Cost of copital = 9%;
IRR =21%
IRR=11%
IRR=10%
Dreebyshaw intends to maintain its 25% debt and 75% common equity capital structure, and its net income is expected to be 58,250,000. If Dreebyshaw maintains its residuai dividend policy (with all distributions in the form of dividends). what will ats payout ratio be? Round your answer to two decimal places.
When expressed as a percentage and rounded to two decimal places, the payout ratio is 100%.
To calculate Dreebyshaw Industries' payout ratio, we first need to determine the total investment in the projects and the amount of earnings retained for those investments.
Dreebyshaw has three projects, each requiring a $55 million investment. The total investment needed is $165 million. With a 25% debt and 75% equity capital structure, the equity portion of the investment is 75% x $165 million = $123.75 million.
Since the net income for the year is expected to be $58,250,000, we can calculate the retained earnings by subtracting the equity portion of the investment from the net income: $58,250,000 - $123,75 million = -$65.5 million. However, since a company cannot have negative retained earnings, the retained earnings are $0.
Dreebyshaw's residual dividend policy means that all earnings not used for investment will be distributed as dividends. Since the retained earnings are $0, all the net income will be paid as dividends. The payout ratio is the proportion of dividends paid out of net income, calculated as:
Payout Ratio = Dividends / Net Income
In this case, the payout ratio is:
Payout Ratio = $58,250,000 / $58,250,000 = 1
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True/false: a centrally controlled economy can exist in a democratic society.
The answer to this question is not a simple true or false, as there are many factors to consider. A centrally controlled economy is one in which the government has significant control over the production and distribution of goods and services.
In theory, it is possible for a centrally controlled economy to exist in a democratic society. However, in practice, it is often difficult to reconcile these two systems. One of the main challenges is ensuring that citizens have a meaningful voice in the decision-making process, even as the government retains significant control over the economy.
Another challenge is balancing economic efficiency with social justice. In a centrally controlled economy, the government may prioritize certain industries or sectors over others, which can lead to unequal distribution of resources. In a democratic society, there is a greater emphasis on ensuring that everyone has a fair shot at success.
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verdi incorporated has before-tax income of $500,000. verdi operates entirely in state q, which has a 10% corporate income tax. compute verdi's combined federal and state tax burden as a percentage of its before-tax income.
To compute Verdi Incorporated's combined federal and state tax burden as a percentage of its before-tax income, we need to consider the corporate income tax rates at both the federal and state levels.
Given that Verdi operates entirely in State Q, which has a 10% corporate income tax rate, we can calculate the combined tax burden as follows:
State tax burden = State tax rate * Before-tax income
State tax burden = 10% * $500,000 = $50,000
To determine the federal tax burden, we need to know the applicable federal corporate income tax rate. As the specific federal tax rate is not provided in the question, we'll assume a hypothetical federal corporate income tax rate of 25% for the calculation.
Federal tax burden = Federal tax rate * Before-tax income
Federal tax burden = 25% * $500,000 = $125,000
To calculate the combined tax burden, we sum the state and federal tax burdens:
Combined tax burden = State tax burden + Federal tax burden
Combined tax burden = $50,000 + $125,000 = $175,000
Finally, we express the combined tax burden as a percentage of Verdi's before-tax income:
Combined tax burden as a percentage = (Combined tax burden / Before-tax income) * 100
Combined tax burden as a percentage = ($175,000 / $500,000) * 100 ≈ 35%
Therefore, Verdi Incorporated's combined federal and state tax burden is approximately 35% of its before-tax income, assuming a hypothetical federal tax rate of 25% and a state tax rate of 10%.
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Your portfolio has provided you with returns of 10.76 percent, 6.2 percent. -0.42 percent, and 14.27 percent over the past four years, respectively. What is the geometric average return for this period? Answer must be in percentage form (e.g. 0.01 is 1%) without the percentage (%) symbol. Answer to two (2) decimals.
The geometric average return for the given period is approximately 0.4037, or 40.37% when expressed as a percentage.
To calculate the geometric average return for the given period, we need to multiply all the individual returns and take the nth root, where n is the number of returns.
First, let's convert the returns into decimal form:
Return 1: 10.76% = 0.1076
Return 2: 6.2% = 0.062
Return 3: -0.42% = -0.0042
Return 4: 14.27% = 0.1427
Now, let's calculate the geometric average return:
Geometric Average Return = (1 + Return 1) * (1 + Return 2) * (1 + Return 3) * (1 + Return 4)^(1/4) - 1
Geometric Average Return = (1 + 0.1076) * (1 + 0.062) * (1 - 0.0042) * (1 + 0.1427)^(1/4) - 1
Geometric Average Return = 1.1076 * 1.062 * 0.9958 * 1.1427^(1/4) - 1
Geometric Average Return ≈ 1.4037 - 1
Geometric Average Return ≈ 0.4037
Therefore, the geometric average return for the given period is approximately 0.4037, or 40.37% when expressed as a percentage.
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P12-3 (Supplement A) Preparing a Statement of Cash Flows (Direct Method)
Sharp Screen Films, Inc., is developing its annual financial statements at December 31, 2015. The statements are complete except for the statement of cash flows. The completed comparative balance sheets and income statement are summarized as follows:
2015 2014
Balance sheet at December 31 Cash $ 68,850 $ 64,500 Accounts receivable 16,250 23,350 Merchandise inventory 23,350 18,600 Property and equipment 210,550 151,400 Less: Accumulated depreciation (60,400) (46,250) $ 258,600 $ 211,600 Accounts payable $ 10,300 $ 20,400 Wages payable 5,300 1,800 Note payable, long-term 61,600 72,500 Contributed capital 100,300 66,400 Retained earnings 81,100 50,500 $ 258,600 $ 211,600 Income statement for 2015 Sales $ 200,000 Cost of goods sold 97,000 Depreciation expense 14,150 Other expenses 43,500 Net income $ 45,350 Additional Data:
a. Bought equipment for cash, $59,150.
b. Paid $10,900 on the long-term note payable.
c. Issued new shares of stock for $33,900 cash.
d. Dividends of $14,750 were declared and paid.
e. Other expenses all relate to wages.
f. Accounts payable includes only inventory purchases made on credit.
Required:
1. Prepare the statement of cash flows using the direct method for the year ended December 31, 2015.(List cash outflows as negative amounts.)
The statement of cash flows shows that Sharp Screen Films, Inc. had a net increase in cash of $108,100 for the year ended December 31, 2015. The ending cash balance is $172,600.
Operating Activities:
Cash received from customers (Sales): $200,000
Cash paid for wages (Other expenses): ($43,500 - Increase in Wages Payable)
Change in Wages Payable: $5,300 - $1,800 = $3,500
Cash paid for wages (Other expenses): $43,500 - $3,500 = $40,000
Net cash provided by operating activities: [Cash received from customers - Cash paid for wages] = $200,000 - $40,000 = $160,000
Investing Activities:
Cash paid to purchase equipment: ($59,150)
Net cash used in investing activities: ($59,150)
Financing Activities:
Cash paid on long-term note payable: ($10,900)
Cash received from issuance of stock: $33,900
Cash paid for dividends: ($14,750)
Net cash provided by financing activities: ($10,900 + $33,900 - $14,750) = $8,250
Net increase in cash: [$160,000 (Operating) - $59,150 (Investing) + $8,250 (Financing)] = $108,100
Cash at beginning of the year: $64,500
Cash at end of the year: $64,500 + $108,100 = $172,600
The statement of cash flows shows that Sharp Screen Films, Inc. had a net increase in cash of $108,100 for the year ended December 31, 2015. The ending cash balance is $172,600.
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A bond is selling at 100% of its par value right now. It has 8% annual coupon rate. You bought this bond ten years ago at 95% of its par value.
If you sold this bond today, what is your realized yield?
If the bond is sold today, the realized yield will be 84.2%.Hence, the correct answer is 84.2%.
A bond is selling at 100% of its par value right now. It has 8% annual coupon rate. You bought this bond ten years ago at 95% of its par value.
Let us assume that the face value (par value) of the bond is $100.Coupon rate = 8%We know that,Price of bond = $100 (selling at 100% of par value)Purchase price of the bond = $95 Number of years the bond is held (time period) = 10 years Semi-annual coupon payment = (Coupon rate / 2) * Face value= (8/2) * $100 = $4 The number of semi-annual periods in 10 years = 10 x 2 = 20 Semi-annual yield = Coupon amount / Purchase price of the bond= $4 / $95 = 0.0421 Realized Yield = Semi-annual Yield x Number of semi-annual periods Realized Yield = 0.0421 x 20= 0.842 or 84.2%.
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